Many similarities exist in the laws presented in both of these documents, but I am not really sure what that means. I would assume that some scholars in the liberal or critical camps might claim, as they would in number two above, that since there are similarities, the laws of Israel had to be borrowed from this and other documents, but I do not see how that has to follow. Granted, I am not a historian nor have I had sufficient training in this area to give an expert opinion, but I can give a logical one. If God created men, then all men are instilled with God’s moral code; a common ethic. If this is true, then one would expect that man would produce common laws in common situations. Many of the laws of this time look odd to us, but we must remember their context. I am sure that many of our laws would look odd to people who lived during the time these ancient documents were written. If two nations have similar laws, that does not mean they borrowed from each other, but that something specific in that time period required a specific law which was based upon the God-given morality that exists within the hearts of each nation.
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